Very new to bubble so appreciate that that this is probably a very VERY common question. I did search and saw a lot and nothing that really got to my questions so trying with my own post.
If you have a payer - they dont need an account right? Its only the payee that needs the stripe account. Correct?
So lets take a scenario of a seller and an buyer.
- Seller has stripe account
- App (we) have a stripe account
- Buyer does not have a stripe account (or does not have to)
- When paying seller the buyer enters their CC information in a stripe form. The proceeds go to the seller and the fee goes to the app (us). This is how the app fee is “stored” right?
Is this how it would work?
Thanks a lot.